The following exchange took place on an Internet discussion list made up of a number of preachers. The exchange is not highly structured because of the nature of the list, but it should provide additional insight into the subject of God's grace and man's obedience pertaining to salvation (the names have been changed to allow concentration only on the teaching). This exchange is of particular interest because it involves a member of the church of Christ. "Jake" has not gone all the way to the point of accepting the total denominational view of salvation by grace only, but Jake is in the very process of arriving at the denominational stance. Jake's view is, therefore, an example of false teaching in the evolutionary stage. Some of the nuances are still subtle, yet present. (Please be sure to read, "Three Views of Salvation.")
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
Jake wrote:
"We do good works because we have been saved, not in order to be saved.
Finally, Frank is exactly right in one of his previous posts. The value of my works in
obtaining salvation for me is zero. The only works which contribute to my salvation are
the works of Christ, because those are the only works which are flawless, as God's
righteousness requires works to be."
Don replies:
Jake, you made a number of good, well articulated points in your above referenced post. I
am aware that there is a great challenge when it comes to teaching on the subject of
"works," even works God has ordained, in the matter of man's salvation. I am
certainly faced with the same challenge.
Jake and the list, I have noticed that on occasion when teaching on God approved works
under the heading of salvation, there are often many truths correctly set forth along with
some expressions and statements that I view as inappropriate and incongruous to the over
all teaching of the scriptures, such as the above.
Jake, may I ask you some simple questions for you to answer on the list? Keep in mind
that I understand and freely admit that man does not, cannot, and will not merit his
salvation (Rom. 4). I am also aware that Christ's system of salvation does not involve a
marriage of salvation by flawless deeds and salvation by grace (Rom. 11: 6).
(1). Has God required certain works to be performed by man, without which man cannot be
saved?
(2). Do these requisite works involve such acts as: belief, repentance, confession of
Christ's deity, and water baptism for the remission of sins in order to become a
Christian? Must the child of God regularly attend the local church of which he is a part,
stand for the truth, and live a godly life?
(3). Is righteousness, in a good and saving sense, ever applied to man based on what that
man is and does?
(4). When man appears before God in the Day of Judgment, what and whom will God see:
A. Man only (his love and obedience).
B. Man and Jesus (man's obedience and Jesus' death and atoning blood).
C. Jesus' personal righteousness only.
Jake, the list and I shall await your answers.
Cordially,
Don Martin
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
Jake, first of all, thank you for responding to my questions. However, the format you
selected is rather confusing to me and difficult for me to address (you addressed multiple
people at the same time). I shall briefly comment:
My question two was: (2). Do these requisite works involve such acts as: belief,
repentance, confession of Christ's deity, and water baptism for the remission of sins in
order to become a Christian? Must the child of God regularly attend the local church of
which he is a part, stand for the truth, and live a godly life?
To which Jake replied:
Yes ... see previous answer. The terms of the covenant ("HBRCB," hearing,
belief, repentance, confession, and baptism, dm) are not works in the Pauline sense. They
are acceptance of the "free gift." Once one is a Christian one lives as a
Christian to the best of one's ability, but Christians are continually in need of God's
grace because no human being today can obey the law of God perfectly, which is what
works-salvation would require. Salvation is "by faith from first to last."
Don comments:
Jake, I do really believe there are some serious differences between you and me regarding
what we teach relative to the necessity of man's obedience. However, I agree with you when
you say, "Salvation is 'by faith from first to last.'" The essential nature of
saving faith is that of activity as opposed to passivity. A dead faith never has and never
will save anybody (Jas. 2: 14-26). Put another way, saving faith is tantamount to biblical
obedience. Even though we are under the "perfect law of liberty," man's implicit
obedience is absolutely required in order for man to obtain and maintain salvation (Jas.
1: 25; Heb. 5: 8, 9). These are matters that the inspired apostles stressed in their
teaching and faithful men of God today will emphasize the same. God has done his part in
providing the requisite grace, we need to impressed upon men the need of them doing their
part, obedience to the terms of accepting his grace.
The saved view God's commandments as pleasant and not onerous (I Jn. 5: 3). They joyfully
obey God because they love him; hence, obedience is not equated by them to a system of
salvation by burdensome works. They are not heard crying and charging:
"legalism," anytime one really stresses obedience to the gospel (Rom. 6: 18,
19).
My question number four was: (4). When man appears before God in the Day of Judgment, what
and whom will God see:
A. Man only (his love and obedience).
B. Man and Jesus (man's obedience and Jesus' death and atoning blood).
C. Jesus' personal righteousness only.
To which Jake replied in part:
"I would say "B" comes closest....."
Don comments:
Again, Jake, you do not seem, as far as your answer is concerned, to have much a problem
in selecting "B" as opposed to "A" and "C." However, you do
seem to express some reticence when you say, "B comes closest." I would answer
"B is the answer."
Jake, again, answering in a simultaneous fashion multiple people does offer difficulty for
you and me. I really do believe that there are some conceptual differences between you and
me regarding "salvation by grace through faith." I also am convinced based on a
number of posts on this discussion list that there are a number who have accepted
Calvinistic tenants, such as the imputation of Christ's righteousness.
I would like to engage in an open discussion on this list regarding these matters with
you. Again, my contention is: While man cannot earn salvation by flawless law keeping,
implicit obedience to the commands of the gospel, beginning with primary obedience and
continuing throughout man's life, is absolutely required in order for man to appropriate
the blessings and benefits of God's grace.
Jake and some others on the list, can you say what I just said? This is not a game of
semantics, this is serious business.
Jake, thank you for your time and energy. I would like to see you comment on the
immediately preceding. In all fairness, feel free to also pose some questions to me. I
would enjoy the exercise and I would also profit, no doubt.
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
I appreciate Jake agreeing to engage with me in an exchange relative to
such matters as works that God has ordained and man's salvation. I believe that Jake and I
have some conceptual differences pertaining to God ordered works for man to perform. I
encourage all to carefully read both Jake and my posts. I believe Jake to be capable and
able to articulately set forth his views regarding God's grace and how it works. This is
why I have invited Jake to have a discussion with me. There are some serious
and material differences emerging among us regarding God's grace and this issue needs to
be carefully examined. It could be that Jake has embraced error / I have gone to the
extreme / or both Jake and I are wrong. However, I believe such an exchange between Jake
and me will assist any who want to establish the parameters of truth in the matter of
works and grace. Jake has submitted ten good questions for me to answer. I shall be as
succinct in my answers as I can. Jake will then reply to my answers and attempt to show
where I am wrong (in the cases where he believes I do err). I will then respond to Jake's
critique (I will have two posts, this one and one more in commenting on Jake's questions).
Jake asked:
1. If a person could live in sinless conformity to the law of God, would that person by
works done in obedience to law earn or merit salvation?
Don answers:
Yes (Rom. 4: 1-4).
2. Is any, or are all, of the acts of "primary obedience" (faith, repentance,
confession, baptism) works of law by which a person earns or merits salvation?
Don answers:
None of the required works of God, including both primary and those works involved in
being "children of obedience," I Peter 1: 14, in this dispensation are works of
law "by which a person earns or merits salvation." I say this based on faith,
for instance, being a "work of God," required, but man possessing faith still
not being able to earn salvation (Jn. 6: 29; Jn. 3: 16; Tit. 3: 5).
3. What contribution, if any, do works done in less-than-perfect obedience to law make to
salvation?
Don answers:
Here we enter into a possible realm of semantics (how we are using terms) and
disagreement. In relation to God's required obedience, man is both perfect and imperfect
(see how Paul uses "perfect," teleioo, vs 12, and teleios, vs. 15, in
Philippians chapter three). Perfect obedience is obedience rendered by man to God's
requirements in appropriating his grace and mercy (Ibid., see also Eph. 2: 8-10). This
perfect obedience, however, takes into account that man is not sinless and, therefore, is
in need of requisite grace (Tit. 3: 5). Biblical "Salvation by grace" that
requires man's "perfect obedience" never contains the idea of a man who
believes, repents, confesses Jesus' deity, but is not baptized. Such salvation does not
offer hope for the child of God who attends the local church, but lives in adultery in an
unscriptural marriage. The implementation of God's required works is the situation of
"grace reign through righteousness" (charis basileuon dia dikaiosunes, Rom. 5:
21, cp. Ps. 119: 172, I Jn. 2: 29). Put in simple terms, God required works done by man
who, when absolutely viewed, is not sinless, makes it possible for that man of faith
(obedience) to access and benefit from God's grace (Eph. 2: 9-10).
4. For a sinner (one who has broken the law under which he is accountable to God) to be
made righteous, what form of atonement, if any, is required?
Don answers:
Regarding the immediately preceding question, there are requisites for both God and man.
God had to provide the ultimate atonement, his own Son (Heb. 9, I Jn. 2: 1, 2). Jesus'
blood is the only thing that can and does meet the requirements for remitting the curse of
sin (Heb. 9: 12). Since God's grace "has appeared to all men," but only a few
will be saved, it is evident that man must do something (God required works) to benefit
from God's grace (Tit. 2: 11; Matt. 7: 13, 14). The "form of atonement," then,
as it involves man's participation, is the system that provides forgiveness to all who
access Jesus' atoning blood (Acts 2: 38; I Jn. 1: 7-10).
5. Are perfect understanding of and perfect obedience to every law of God which applies to
an individual necessary for salvation by works?
Don answers:
Jake, if by "salvation by works" you mean salvation by faith (Jas. 2: 14-26), I
would provide the following answer: "Perfect understanding" and "perfect
obedience" to every law of God is required, in keeping with God's definition of
"perfect" (cp. Phili. 3: 15). The alien sinner must understand, for instance,
that water baptism is for the remission of sin and must obey Acts 2: 38. The alien sinner
who is baptized because he thinks he is already saved, does not have perfect understanding
and has not perfectly obeyed. However, the one who perfectly understand at the time and
rendered "perfect obedience" to the God required work of baptism in looking back
ten years later, will certainly possess a more complete knowledge of baptism, etc. Jake,
on a higher level, please notice my wording, I would concede there is the matter of
relativity (Phili. 3: 15). Nonetheless, in all situations, God has a required level of
understanding and obedience. This we can term perfect understanding and perfect obedience.
6. Does salvation in Christ include actions or works of atonement which must be carried
out by sinners in order to save themselves?
Don answers:
While man cannot earn his salvation, there is yet a biblical sense in which man
"saves himself" (Acts 2: 40, I Tim. 4: 16). Man "saves himself" when
he humbly performs the God required works that are pertinent to his particular situation
(Ibid.) Indeed, salvation is in Christ (2 Tim. 2: 10). Jake, you are also correct in
saying that "man is a sinner" (I Jn. 1: 8-10). God's love and grace, both are
causative and essential to man's salvation, but man must "keep himself" in God's
love and grace (Jude 21; I Cor. 15: 1, 2). As seen, God offers atonement (forgiveness) for
the sins of his children (I Jn. 2: 1, 2). However, God also has a required and enjoined
act(s) that his children must perform to have atonement, confession and walking in the
light (I Jn. 1: 7-9). Confession (specific) and walking in the light (generic) are not
works that allow man to boast or earn his salvation. They do not glorify and magnify man,
but point to the real matter of efficacy, Jesus' blood.
7. Can obedience to one commandment within a law atone, partially or fully, for
disobedience to another commandment in that law?
Don answers:
Jake, one cannot keep one law and disregard another law or God required work (Jas. 2: 10).
This was true under the Law of Moses (a system that required sinless obedience for
justification) and the law of Christ, the "perfect law of liberty" (Jas. 1: 25,
cp. Jas. 2: 1-13).
8. Is our relationship with God in Christ today, like the relationship of Israel to God
under the Law of Moses, based upon a system of law requiring perfect obedience for
justification?
Don answers:
There are multitudinous and important differences regarding the Jew under the Law of Moses
and the Christian under the perfect law of liberty. Hence, the simple answer to question
eight is, no.
9. In what sense are we justified by grace through faith and not by works?
Don answers:
The Christian is "justified by grace" (Rom. 3: 24). "Faith" in the
matter of man's justification is tantamount to his "obedience" (Jas. 2: 14-26).
Saving faith is always the matter of implicitly obeying any and all God required works
(Heb. 5: 8, 9). Such justification, though, does not involve works whereby man can glory,
be they works of the Law of Moses or works of man's origination (Gal. 3; Eph. 2: 8-10). In
this sense and definition, man is justified by grace through faith and not by works.
10. Are works done in obedience to the law of God added to divine grace and human faith in
order to qualify a person to be saved?
Don answers:
We do not read such language as "added to divine grace and human faith..." in
the scriptures. God required works are simply man appropriating God's grace, whether it is
the situation of the alien sinner or the child of God. This appropriation is done by faith
(man's obedience to God required works, Eph. 2: 8-10, Jas. 2: 14-26).
List members, Jake has done a masterful job in composing and submitting relevant and
position qualifying questions. I greatly commend him and you for following this exchange.
We shall now wait for Jake's response to my answers. Beginning with Jake's response, the
discussion should narrow and become more focused. As I have said, I view Jake as very
intelligent and able to analyze logic. I do not, therefore, anticipate any mud slinging,
deflective, or straw man issues to be injected.
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
Jake, I bid you and the list a good day. I want to thank you for your
continued part in this exchange. I learned a long time ago that capable people do not have
to resort to mud slinging and motive assignment to state, defend, and test their position
on a particular matter. I believe you are evidence of this. Jake has presented ten
questions to me regarding salvation, God required works, and God's grace. I have answered
those questions and Jake have responded to my answers. Regarding a number of the answers,
Jake, you do not register serious disagreement. For the sake of space, therefore, I shall
only select and reply to those questions wherein you have either asked a question or
stated a degree of disagreement.
QUESTION 2: Is any, or are all, of the acts of "primary obedience" (faith,
repentance, confession, baptism) works of law by which a person earns or merits salvation?
DON'S ANSWER (partial): None of the required works of God, including both primary and
those works involved in being "children of obedience," I Peter 1: 14, in this
dispensation are works of law "by which a person earns or merits salvation."
MY COMMENT: Would not the works to which Peter refers in the cited text (he quotes from
the Law of Moses), if they could be obeyed sinlessly, convey salvation by works?"
Don replies:
Jake, I am a little confused. Do you mean "James" instead of "Peter?"
At any rate, God has always had moral laws that have been binding. The laws such as
"do not commit adultery" and "do not kill" are a frame of reference of
James (Jas. 2: 11). They were binding on the Jew (Ex. 20: 14; 13). They are also binding
on the Christian, but in the climate of the "perfect law of liberty," the system
of salvation by grace through faith (Jas. 1: 25, Eph. 2: 8, 9). If these laws, any laws,
could be flawlessly obeyed; yes, salvation would be earned. However, such is not the case,
as you and I know (I Jn. 1: 9, 10).
I wrote the following in regards to Jake's question three:
Biblical "Salvation by grace" that requires man's "perfect obedience"
never contains the idea of a man who believes, repents, confesses Jesus' deity, but is not
baptized. Such salvation does not offer hope for the child of God who attends the local
church, but lives in adultery in an unscriptural marriage.
Jake responded:
JAKE INTERRUPTS: I'm not sure I disagree with any of the preceding, but I would definitely
have said it differently. One must completely meet the terms of the covenant of grace, but
the deeds by which we accept the terms of that covenant are not works in any Pauline sense
(though perhaps in a Jamesian sense).
Don comments:
Jake and the list, I have up-front conceded that man is not saved by flawless law keeping
or meritorious works (Tit. 3: 5). Hence, this is not the issue. I agree that in contexts
such as Romans 4, Paul speaks of "works" in the sense of earned salvation.
However, Paul also presented the concept of works in the climate of salvation by grace
(Phili. 2: 12, Eph. 2: 10).
Jake wrote:
"FRCB" (faith, repentance, confession, and baptism, dm) have exactly the same
relationship to having one's sins forgiven as Naaman's dipping in the Jordan has to do
with having leprosy cleansed or marching 13 times (a Jewish lucky number, HA!) around
Jericho does to making the walls fall. Naaman was cleansed by action but not by works
(other lepers dipping in the Jordan remained lepers).
Don answers:
Jake, I do not see any serious disagreement in the wording.
Jake continued:
Adultery and meeting to encourage other Christians are matters of law, which do not save
Christians by works of law (because we do not perform them sinlessly) but do provide
evidence of saving faith.....
Jake, we are expressing in words concepts differently because we have different concepts,
I am convinced. The point I have attempted to repeatedly make is that saving faith is
always an obedient faith (Jas. 2: 14-26). There are not two faiths presented under the
canopy of salvation, one ......and the other obedient (James' faith, Jas. 2). No, avoiding
adultery and faithfully attending will not of themselves save anyone, as far as earning
salvation is concerned. However, one cannot be saved without doing these matters. This
"doing" does not nullify grace (sense the "doing" is not absolutely
flawless, grace is required). This is my contention.
Jake asked:
Don, is one saved because he eschews living in adultery, or by the faith which moves him
to embrace Jesus as lord?
Don reflects:
Jake, I do not want to ascribe to you any belief that you do not maintain. However, I have
been asked so many times by "grace/fellowship" people (those who de emphasize
man's obedience and rely on grace) questions that attempt to differentiate, isolate, and,
sometime, eliminate. Again, you and I are having linguistic problems. I would simply say
that faith that embraces the Lordship of Jesus will cause one to eschew living in adultery
(Lk. 6: 46). Do you see the difference? I am just as uncomfortable with your wording as
you are with mine, this is because we have an underlying conceptual difference regarding
salvation by obedience and grace, I am afraid.
Jake asked, in connection with question three:
All God's commands are righteous, but none of those who are trying to carry out God's
commands is righteous (Romans 3:9-28). Don, if I have misunderstood, please correct me. Do
you not see a distinction between completely meeting every covenant requirement in order
to receive (not earn) salvation, and doing works in obedience to God's laws, which if
performed sinlessly would earn salvation by works of law?
Don responds:
Jake, I have said in as many ways that I can that man cannot earn his salvation by perfect
law keeping (Tit. 3: 5). This is not the issue. However, I have and am saying that man
must obey in order to appropriate God's saving grace (Heb. 5: 8, 9).
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
I shall continue to respond to Jake's review of my answers to his ten
questions. Because of space limitations, I cannot insert all the question and my answer.
Here is Jake's response to my answer for question four:
JAKE RESPONDS: Again, I am not sure that we actually disagree on this point, but I would
have said it differently. The only atonement for sin is Jesus (1Jn 2:1-2), and the only
reason that the sacrifice of Jesus is efficacious is because He kept the law sinlessly
(Heb 10:5-10). Yes, man must do something to benefit from God's grace (Jas 2), but what he
does is deeds of faith to accept the terms by which the free gift is offered. He is not
saved by works done in obedience to law: "Therefore, no one will be declared
righteous in his sight by observing law; rather, through law we become conscious of
sin."
Don comments:
Again, I do not view the above as the issue. The issue is, does man have to perform God
required works in order to be saved by grace, this is my contention. Works, I again add,
that make up the process and action of appropriating, accepting, and accessing God's
grace.
Jake comments relative to question five thus:
JAKE RESPONDS: Again, I am not sure that we actually disagree on this point, but I would
have said it differently. The only atonement for sin is Jesus (1Jn 2:1-2), and the only
reason that the sacrifice of Jesus is efficacious is because He kept the law sinlessly
(Heb 10:5-10). Yes, man must do something to benefit from God's grace (Jas 2), but what he
does is deeds of faith to accept the terms by which the free gift is offered. He is not
saved by works done in obedience to law: "Therefore, no one will be declared
righteous in his sight by observing law; rather, through law we become conscious of
sin."
Don responds:
Again, the issue is not earned salvation by the sinless keeping of law. The issue is the
essentiality of keeping God required works and benefiting from the advantageous grace of
God that makes up for man's imperfect (not flawless) obedience.
Jake continued to ask relative to question five:
Don, do you not agree that if we cannot be sinless we cannot be saved by works done in
obedience to law? Do you not agree that our only hope of salvation is faith, which is
different from sinlessness?
Don answers:
Jake and the list, involved in such an exchange is the matter of wadding through word
definition, semantical matters, and even situations of equivocation. Perhaps we are
nearing the end and shall soon focus our discussion on the core issue. Jake, why not
express the above as: "Our only hope is 'salvation by grace through faith'"
(Eph. 2: 8, I Pet. 4: 11)? Man does not, will not, and cannot earn his salvation, but man
is required to appropriate God's grace and this appropriation involves humbly obeying all
God required works (Heb. 5: 8, 9). Since we will not flawlessly keep any of these
commands, God has provided the means of obviation, his grace (Lk. 17: 10).
I shall respond to Jake's post number three in my next post. Again, I thank Jake for his
patience and I thank you for you interest. I think we are doing some necessary fine tuning
in these preliminary posts and will be able to shortly address the substantive issue.
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
This is my final post in response to Jake's review of my answers to his ten questions.
I am very much enjoying the exchange. I have been feverishly working on a Bible time line
to be published to Bible Truths and I view the exchange as a welcome change of subject. I
also am enjoying it because I believe good will result from it.
Regarding question number six in which I mention that there is a sense in which man
"saves himself" (Acts 2: 40 and that man participates in his salvation by
"keeping himself in the love of God" (Jude 21), Jake responded:
JAKE INTERRUPTS: I agree, but I would interject that the way we keep ourselves in God's
love and grace is through faith--through trusting God--not through works, because the only
works that would be acceptable to God are sinless works.
Don comments:
Jake, may I kindly say that I believe our real differences are now surfacing. The kind of
obedience (works) set forth in the New Testament are works concerning which God is very
aware and determine if we are accepted or refused. Again, this is not to say that we merit
salvation (Lk. 17: 10). However, man is simply not acceptable to God without implicit
obedience to God's required works (Acts 2: 37-42). Saving faith itself is belief and trust
in God that expresses itself in obedience. Without the obedience, there is no saving faith
(Jas. 2: 14-26). I have often said that one does no harm to scripture to mentally
substitute "obedience" for "faith" in verses mentioning saving faith.
Faith itself is a work, a work of God (Jn. 6: 29).
Since question seven, my answer, and Jake's response are concise, I shall insert them:
QUESTION 7: Can obedience to one commandment within a law atone, partially or fully, for
disobedience to another commandment in that law?
DON'S ANSWER: Jake, one cannot keep one law and disregard another law or God required work
(Jas. 2: 10). This was true under the Law of Moses (a system that required sinless
obedience for justification) and the law of Christ, the "perfect law of liberty"
(Jas. 1: 25, cp. Jas. 2: 1-13).
JAKE RESPONDS: I admit to struggling with what James means by "the law of
liberty." His quotation, you will note, is from the OT, but he treats these two
commandments as though they apply to Christians. Don, do you not agree that, since
obedience to one command cannot be substituted for obedience to another, whatever actions
constitute the response of faith to the offered grace of God cannot be classed as works in
the sense that Paul used the term?
Don responds:
Again, Jake, I remain confused. Paul addressed "works" in many contexts and
nuances. Just because Paul taught that salvation by grace is not mixed with earned
salvation by flawless law keeping (Rom. 11: 6), does not mean Paul was opposed to obeying
God required works in the setting of grace (Phili. 2: 12, Heb. 11).
Regarding Jake's comments on my answer for question nine, I think we see more essential
difference emerging:
JAKE RESPONDS: A couple of Don's statements are insufficiently precise for my (admittedly
warped, HA!) taste. Don, does not Heb 5:8-9 concern the works of Jesus by which He became
complete as a high priest and mediator, and not our works?
Don reflects:
Yes, Jake, the emphasis of Hebrews 5: 8, 9 is on Jesus, if this is your question. However,
the verse says: "And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation
unto all them that obey him" (vs. 9). We must not stress man's obedience to the point
of excluding Jesus. However, neither must we emphasize Jesus to the point of eliminating
man's obedience.
Question ten, my answer, and Jake's review are also short:
QUESTION 10: Are works done in obedience to the law of God added to divine grace and human
faith in order to qualify a person to be saved?
DON'S ANSWER: We do not read such language as "added to divine grace and human
faith..." in the scriptures. God required works are simply man appropriating God's
grace, whether it is the situation of the alien sinner or the child of God. This
appropriation is done by faith (man's obedience to God required works, Eph. 2: 8-10, Jas.
2: 14-26).
JAKE RESPONDS: I agree with almost all of Don's answer. Don, is it not true that Paul says
in Ephesians that we are saved by faith "unto" good works, not "because
of" good works? Is it not true that the only thing he says about good works is that
we are "not" saved by them!
Don answers:
Here is what Paul sequentially sets forth in the passage of Ephesians 2: 8-10: (1). Man is
saved "by grace through faith." The grace is God's part; the faith is man's
part. The faith under consideration is active, obedient faith that submits as best as one
can to God's teaching and commands (Gal. 5: 6, I Jn. 2: 3-6). Man's salvation is not by
works whereby man can boast. There is no opportunity for boasting in humbly keeping God's
commands out of love, they are not of a nature to lend themselves to such boasting (I Jn.
5: 3, Eph. 2: 9). Next, Paul wrote, "...created in Christ Jesus unto good works,
which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them" (vs. 10). The expression
"created...unto good works... (ktisthentes... epi ergois agathois) indicates the very
purpose for being created in Christ, "for good works" (ASV, cp. 2 Cor. 5: 17).
The wording, "...that we should walk in them" (ina en autois pheriphatesomen)
graphically teaches that the life of the Christian is to be that of good works, continued
good works.
Since belief itself is a "work of God," the whole experience of being a
Christian, from beginning to end, is a matter of "good works." Jake, may I
gently say that a number of your statements seem to be designed to play down God required
works. Let me close by again affirming: Man does not earn his salvation, were it not for
the grace of God, the most obedience would be lost!" (Lk. 17: 10.) However,
regardless of the abundance of God's grace, without man's obedience to God required works,
God's grace is in vain, as far as man is concerned (2 Cor. 6: 1).
Jake, I shall now provide you with an opportunity to reply to my posts. After your reply,
I shall ask you some questions. Thank you again for your commendable behavior.
Jake replies to my last post and my final response to his comments on my answers:
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
Jake has now had his final say regarding the answers I provided to his ten questions
relative to salvation, grace, and man's obedience. I shall herein provide my final brief
comment on Jake's below post. Jake mentioned that he will be out of town for a few days. I
will shortly provide a couple questions (probably two only at first) for Jake to answer.
Here is what Jake said and my comments (November 14, 2001, digest 2681, I shall address
only the areas in which Jake states a disagreement):
"...I think it's just one issue, and here it is. Don and I agree that the works the
Christian does in obedience to the law of God do make a contribution to salvation, but we
disagree what that contribution is.
I believe the contribution these works make to salvation is that they demonstrate that the
person doing them is maintaining his commitment of faith to Jesus, and that it is entirely
because of that faith, and not at all because of the works he does by that faith, that the
person will be saved. I believe that, at some point, a person who deviates from keeping
the law of God demonstrates that he is no longer living by faith, and that at that point
he has "fallen from grace." I will admit that I cannot always specify a priori
what this point is, though it is conclusively demonstrated by some patterns of misconduct.
I don't want to be in the position of putting bits into Don's computer, but I will
say--and I welcome Don's correction on this point--that it appears he believes that works
done by the Christian in keeping the laws of God, even though not sinless, do make some
contribution to one's salvation that is different from or in addition to their indication
that the person possesses faith; that is, such works are in some way added to the grace of
God in order to save the redeemed Christian.
I again salute Don for his conduct in this discussion."
Don comments:
Thus far, so much of our exchange remains semantical, I believe. It appears Jake takes
issue with such language as, "God's grace coupled with man's obedience, equals man's
salvation." I have offered the exegesis of Ephesians 2: 8 that grace is God's
essential part and "faith" is man's necessary part. The point with which Jake
disagrees is when I say the "faith" under consideration is man's obedience. In
the above quoted post, Jake seeks to distinguish between "obedience" and
"faith." I have suggested that in verses that mention saving faith, you can
visualize "obedience" without doing any serious harm to the verse.
I understand that faith (Pistis) involves belief in God that embraces not simply the
intellect but trust and reliance. However, this considered faith always (no exception) is
operative and obedient. It seems Jake wants faith to essentially involve belief, trust,
and reliance, but he wants obedience to God's commands separate and apart (see Jas. 2:
14-26, Gal. 5: 6, Heb. 5: 8, 9, chapter 11). Herein we do differ. James and Paul are
really saying the same thing: man is justified by faith (Rom. 5: 1, Jas. 2: 14-26).
I believe Jake has done a good job in his final analysis and I agree with his assessment.
I trust the questions that I ask of him will be successful in focusing on the basic and
consequential difference Jake and I have regarding saving faith (man's part in his
salvation). Let me also say that I believe Jake is making some good "potential"
points. I say this with regard to any belief that "saving obedience" (faith) is
simply a mechanical, superficial, and robotic performance. I believe there are those in
the church whose "obedience" is simply a performance and not that emanating and
involved in their implicit faith in God (Heb. 11: 1, 2).
I again want to thank Jake for his work and you for reading this exchange.
Cordially,
Don Martin
Don Martin to Jake and the list:
One of the paramount challenges of one engaged in an exchange is that of attempting to
analyze the basic concepts involved in the discussion. Too much time is often spent
regarding peripheral issues; hence, a symptomatic discussion takes place. My basic concept
of salvation by grace through faith (Eph. 2: 8) is this:
Since man cannot earn his salvation, God has provided essential grace (Tit. 2: 11). This
grace is universal, but man must do something to appropriate God's grace (Tit. 2: 11-14).
However, the appropriation (accepting) cannot be such as would itself involve "works
whereby we can boast" (Eph. 2: 9). It is evident that there are "works"
essentially involved in man's salvation by grace. Man must believe, all agree, and belief
itself is a "work of God" (Jn. 6: 29). Belief is said to be a work, in one
sense, because man must allow the word (must consider and study it) to develop faith
within him (Jn. 20: 30, 31, Rom. 10: 17). This necessary faith is not simply mentally
accenting to God's existence, but it always manifests itself in implicit obedience to the
commands of God (Jas. 2: 14-26). Belief, repentance, confession, and baptism are all
necessary to man's salvation by grace (Jn. 8: 24; Acts 17: 30; Rom. 10: 9, 10; Acts 2:
38). These acts are all works, but not the type of action that meritoriously reflect on
the doer (many Baptist argue that faith is miraculously supplied to man; hence, not a
work). These acts simply constitute the accepting and appropriation of God's saving grace.
They are analogous to the drowning man reaching out and accepting the life line provided
to him that will pull him to safety. "Look what I did, I was drowning and I saved
myself..." is unthinkable. The emphasis is on the one who provided the rope, if you
please, that saved the helpless drowning man. Thus it is spiritually. However, to
emphasize that even these works (the appropriation of grace) are not in the spot light
relative to man's salvation, Paul said "not by works of righteousness which we have
done, but according to his mercy he saved us..." (Tit. 3: 5, it is interesting that
Paul immediately states salvation is by baptism).
Jake's differing view of salvation by grace through faith is as follows: Man is saved
by grace on God's part and faith is man's part. Works of any kind (even God required
works) are not essentially and inherently involved and in place in the matter of faith.
Man does, though, have to have works or be obedient, but this obedience is separate and
apart from his faith. "We do good works because we have been saved, not in order to
be saved," Jake has stated. Hence, Jake has segregated and separated saving faith and
obedience or God required works. Jake believes that to have works in place in man's saving
faith is to have man saved by works and not by grace. The analogous reaching out for the
life line would, then, be simply the man having faith apart from any kind of work.
Based on what I trust and believe is an accurate assessment of Jake's basic concept of
salvation by grace through faith, I pose my first two questions for Jake to answer:
1. Is not my assessment of your basic concept of salvation by grace through faith
basically accurate (please simply answer "yes" if possible)?
2. How do you define saving faith, what exactly is it and can a person be saved without
doing God required works?
Cordially,
Don Martin
Jake's answers to my first two questions:
1. Is not my assessment of your basic concept of salvation by grace through faith basically accurate (please simply answer "yes" if possible)?
I do not suspect Don of trying to trap me, and perhaps what I am about to say is just
"yes" in other words. But I would describe my position in this way: Saving faith
is inseparable from the works which it motivates a person to do, but it is the faith, not
the works, which saves.
Don's second question:
2. How do you define saving faith, what exactly is it and can a person be saved without
doing God required works?
Saving faith is the acceptance of God's unmerited favor ("grace") by which a
person who has sinned is counted by God as though he had not sinned. Saving faith involves
(1) completion of the terms of the covenant ("FRCB"); (2) the continuing effort
to live in as close a conformity to the expressed will of God as it is possible for a
person to do; and, (3) growth. The works done in an attempt to conform one's life to the
pattern of Jesus are necessary because saving faith is inseparable from the works it
motivates a person to do, but because the works which a saving faith motivates will never
be perfect the works in themselves do not save.
Don Martin to Jake (third and fourth questions):
Jake has graciously complied with my request to answer each question that I submit to him and in just as few words as possible. Regarding question one, I submitted a lead in that described what I thought Jake's concept of salvation by grace through faith is. The thrust of my proposed concept held by Jake was faith saves but faith and works are different, works do not save, it is the faith that saves. Here Jake:
"I do not suspect Don of trying to trap me, and perhaps what I am about to say is just "yes" in other words. But I would describe my position in this way: Saving faith is inseparable from the works which it motivates a person to do, but it is the faith, not the works, which saves."
Don replies:
I plan on commenting more on the first two answers, but at this stage I want to establish a little more frame of reference. Therefore, I submit the lead in for my questions number three and four:
Peter applicably and fearlessly introduced the gospel on the Day of Pentecost by charging those present with crucifying Jesus, whom Peter has proved was "Lord and Christ" (Acts 2: 36, 23). Peter has urged belief and the respondents indicate the presence of belief when they asked, "men and brethren, what shall we do?" (Acts 2: 37). While the question contains an ellipsis, the full question of "what must we do to be saved?" is understood. To this question of what to do to be saved, Peter responded by answering, "repent, and be baptized..." (vs. 38). Appreciate the fact, again, that these people inquiring about salvation already possess motivating faith (vs. 37); hence, Peter does not specifically answer: "believe...." Here are my third and fourth questions, Jake:
3. Were these people who possessed "faith" already technically saved and what is the meaning of, "Save yourselves" in verse 40?
4. Did these people have "remission of sins" (salvation) at the point of believing in God's grace or when they were baptized (a God required work)?
Jake, thank you again for you patience and your participation in this exchange. For those of you who are following this discussion, Jake and I have limited "works" to God required works or obedience to the commands of God.
Jake to Don Martin and the list:
Don has submitted his third and fourth questions. Here are my responses to those
questions.
Don's third question:
3. Were these people who possessed "faith" already technically saved and what is
the meaning of, "Save yourselves" in verse 40?
No, they were not saved, technically or in any other sense that I can discern (I will not
try to predict what decision God might have made "...if so-and-so had
happened..."). Peter's admonition "save yourselves" refers, I believe, both
to their immediate opportunity to respond to the offer of the provision of grace by God
and to the longer-term opportunity to be freed from the bondage of sin by accepting Jesus
as their lord.
Don's fourth question:
4. Did these people have "remission of sins" (salvation) at the point of
believing in God's grace or when they were baptized (a God required work)?
They were baptized "unto" the remission of sins; therefore, they had remission
of sins when they came up from the water of baptism. It was only when their faith was
"made complete" by baptism that any human being could say accurately that they
had a saving faith.
By the way, as I intimated in an earlier communication, I would make a distinction between
the act of submission to baptism and any works done in response to the law of God.
Thanks to Don for his good questions and for his continued good spirit in this exchange.
Don Martin to Jake and the list (first of three answering posts):
Jake, thank you for promptly responding to my questions three and four. However, I am
now utterly confused. I started this exchange with the primary premise that man is saved
by God's grace coupled with man's obedience to the commands of God. This, I injected, is
my understanding of "salvation by grace through faith" (Eph. 2: 8). I have
stated that "God required works" are an essential part (not separate from)
saving faith and do not constitute earned salvation. I have explained that such God
required works (I have named some) are simply man's accepting and appropriating God's
grace. Hence, man must humbly and obediently effect such works in order to be saved. I
have shared with you and the list that faith itself is "the work of God" (Jn. 6:
29).
Jake, you have said, "We do good works because we have been saved, not in order to be
saved." You have said this in the climate of God required works. You have said that
salvation by grace through faith is when man accepts the fact that God has supplied his
grace and that man's salvation is by this grace. You have repeatedly stated that faith and
works are different, albeit inseparable and that man is saved at the point of faith.
Again, all of this has been said in the context of "God required works." In the
matter of man's obedience and salvation, you have referred to Christ's obedience.
Jake wrote:
"We do good works because we have been saved, not in order to be saved.
Finally, Frank is exactly right in one of his previous posts. The value of my works in
obtaining salvation for me is zero. The only works which contribute to my salvation are
the works of Christ, because those are the only works which are flawless, as God's
righteousness requires works to be."
Jake, while you have courteously denied it, I believe you are very close to teaching the
doctrine of the imputation of Christ's righteousness. Calvinists are heard saying,
"man is saved at the point of faith but the saved will do good works because they are
saved, but never in order to be saved...the only works that count in the matter of man's
salvation are the works of Jesus, etc."
Don Martin to Jake and the list (second of three answering posts):
There is evolving in the church before our very eyes a "new"
concept of "salvation by grace through faith" (Eph. 2: 8). It is, when full
blown, the belief and teaching that man is saved by faith apart from works, even God
required works. The position distinguishes between saving faith and works of obedience.
The view is that man is saved at the point of faith and this faith is the accenting that
God has provided his grace for man's salvation. "He will do good works," it is
explained, "not in order to be saved, but because he is saved." Jake's statement
that caused me to take issue with him was, "We do good works because we have been
saved, not in order to be saved." Having grown up in the Baptist religion and
attended Baptist Seminary, I am especially responsive to such phraseology.
Jake has distinguished between saving faith and God required works in a number of his
posts. I presented a succinct summary of what I believed was an accurate assessment of
Jake's concept of salvation by grace through faith. Jake, in general, agreed that my
description of his concept was correct. Please review my analysis and Jake's reply. Also,
please consider Jake's distinction between saving faith and God required works:
Jake's differing view of salvation by grace through faith is as follows: Man is saved by
grace on God's part and faith is man's part. Works of any kind (even God required works)
are not essentially and inherently involved and in place in the matter of faith. Man does,
though, have to have works or be obedient, but this obedience is separate and apart from
his faith. 'We do good works because we have been saved, not in order to be saved,' Jake
has stated. Hence, Jake has segregated and separated saving faith and obedience or God
required works. Jake believes that to have works in place in man's saving faith is to have
man saved by works and not by grace. The analogous reaching out for the life line would,
then, be simply the man having faith apart from any kind of work.
Based on what I trust and believe is an accurate assessment of Jake's basic concept of
salvation by grace through faith, I pose my first two questions for Jake to answer:
1. Is not my assessment of your basic concept of salvation by grace through faith
basically accurate (please simply answer "yes" if possible)?"
Jake's answer to my first question:
"I do not suspect Don of trying to trap me, and perhaps what I am about to say is
just 'yes' in other words. But I would describe my position in this way: Saving faith is
inseparable from the works which it motivates a person to do, but it is the faith, not the
works, which saves."
I have used the analogous illustration of the drowning man being thrown the lifeline. I
have said that in taking hold of the lifeline, the drowning, helpless man is not meriting
his physical salvation. I have suggested that such physical salvation is analogous to
man's spiritual salvation. The lifeline consists of God required works. While Jake has
admitted that man must obey God's commands, he would have the spiritually drowning man
saved before he takes hold of God's lifeline (God required works). In this matter, Jake is
wrong, I am convinced.
Don Martin to Jake and the list (third of three answering posts):
In my post number two, I mentioned the following: "There is
evolving in the church before our very eyes a 'new' concept of 'salvation by grace through
faith' (Eph. 2: 8). It is, when full blown, the belief and teaching that man is saved by
faith apart from works, even God required works. The position distinguishes between saving
faith and works of obedience. The view is that man is saved at the point of faith and this
faith is the accenting that God has provided his grace for man's salvation. 'He will do
good works,' it is explained, 'not in order to be saved, but because he is saved.' Jake's
statement that caused me to take issue with him was, 'We do good works because we have
been saved, not in order to be saved.' Having grown up in the Baptist religion and
attended Baptist Seminary, I am especially aware of such phraseology."
I have from the very inception agreed that man does not and, moreover, cannot earn
salvation. I have contended, though, that saving faith is tantamount to obedience (Jas. 2:
14-26). In fact, I have said that one can visually replace "faith" with
"obedience" in texts pertaining to saving faith without doing any injustice to
the teaching (cp. Jn. 3: 15-21). Jake has taken issue with me in several areas:
1. I have said and continue to teach that man's salvation by grace through faith is man
humbly accepting and appropriating God's grace in obeying God's terms of embracing this
essential grace. I have explained that God's terms of accepting his grace is seen in
belief, repentance, confession of Jesus' deity, and water baptism (Jn. 8: 24; Acts 17: 30,
31; Rom. 10: 9, 10; Acts 2: 38). Man, the Christian, continues in obedience, accepting
God's grace (I Pet. 1: 14). In this sense, man "saves himself," I have explained
(Acts 2: 40). Jake has contended, "We do good works because we have been saved, not
in order to be saved."
2. I have said that saving faith and obedience to God's required works are tantamount
(Jas. 2: 14-26). One cannot, then, scripturally expostulate that one is saved at the point
of faith and then performs God required works. Jake has distinguished many times between
what he terms "saving faith" and God required works. I view Jake's statement,
"Saving faith is inseparable from the works which it motivates a person to do, but it
is the faith, not the works, which saves" as incongruous with the teaching of the
scriptures.
I again repeat: This exchange is not about earned salvation. The reason man does not
attempt to earn his salvation in the New Testament concept of salvation by grace through
faith is:
New Testament obedience is simply accepting God's grace. There is nothing meritorious
about God's commands. It is in view of this scriptural fact that Jesus' anticipatory
teaching was: "So likewise ye, when ye shall have done all those things which are
commanded you, say, We are unprofitable servants: we have done that which was our duty to
do" (Lk. 17: 10).
Jake has sought to distinguish between faith and accepting God's grace through obedience.
He has admitted that "Saving faith is inseparable from the works which it motivates a
person to do, but it is the faith, not the works, which saves."
Jake, may I politely say that I believe herein you do err. I also believe that your
position relative to salvation by grace through faith is on about the sixth level of
gradation development toward standard Baptist doctrine, on the scale of one through ten.
Jake and the list, I recall the apostasy of the sixties and early seventies involving the
same progression. I witnessed about thirty preachers totally fall away, many of whom
became part of the denominational movement relative to salvation by grace.
Jake, I continue to view you as very courteous and intelligent. I urge you, therefore, to
review your thinking and teaching in the matter of salvation by grace through faith.